Nursing Elites

1. A client will start Alfuzosin for the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following is an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Edema
• C. Hypotension
• D. Tremor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Alfuzosin relaxes muscle tone in veins, leading to vasodilation and reduced systemic vascular resistance. This effect can cause hypotension due to decreased cardiac output. Clients should be advised to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position to minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, edema, and tremor are not commonly associated adverse effects of Alfuzosin.

2. A nurse orienting a newly licensed nurse is reviewing the procedure for taking a telephone prescription. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the process?

• A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client's medical record.
• B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
• C. The provider can clarify the prescription when he signs the health record.
• D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Another nurse should listen to the phone call.' When taking a telephone prescription, having another nurse listen to the phone call is essential to prevent errors in communication. This process helps ensure accuracy and reduces the risk of misinterpretation. Choice A is incorrect because entering the prescription into the client's medical record is not related to verifying the accuracy of the telephone prescription. Choice C is incorrect as the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record doesn't address the immediate need for verification during the phone call. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' is a crucial step in confirming the accuracy of all prescriptions, regardless of whether they are one-time or recurring.

3. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This regimen helps in relieving angina symptoms effectively. Option A of taking one tablet every 15 minutes is too infrequent and may delay symptom relief. Option C of taking one tablet at bedtime is not appropriate as Nitroglycerin is used for immediate relief of angina. Option D of taking one tablet on an empty stomach is irrelevant since Nitroglycerin is not affected by food intake.

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