a nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed a new oral hypoglycemic agent for diabetes which of the following statements by the client indica
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023

1. A client has been prescribed a new oral hypoglycemic agent for diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking an oral hypoglycemic agent with an evening snack may lead to hypoglycemia during the night. It is important to follow the prescribed timing for medication administration to maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. The medication is usually taken before meals to help control postprandial blood glucose levels effectively. Choice B is correct as monitoring blood sugar levels before each meal is a good practice. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication upon waking up may align with certain oral hypoglycemic agents' dosing schedules. Choice D is also correct as regular exercise is an important part of managing diabetes.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, it is essential to monitor their heart rate before each dose. Changes such as a heart rate below 60 bpm should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial because Digoxin can affect heart rhythm, and monitoring the heart rate helps in identifying any potential issues early on.

3. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lidocaine is administered to prevent dysrhythmias by delaying conduction in the heart and reducing the automaticity of heart tissue. This action helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias post-cardiac arrest. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lidocaine is not used for slowing intestinal motility, dissolving blood clots, or relieving pain in this context.

5. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

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