ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
- A. Kidney
- B. Liver
- C. Blood
- D. Heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin primarily affects the liver where it inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors.
2. Weight loss therapies that rely on juicing typically provide increased fiber, vitamins, and minerals. As an added incentive, juices contain a lower concentration of sugar than the whole fruit. Are these statements true or false?
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: B: Both statements are false
Rationale: The correct answer is both statements are false. The process of juicing often extracts the liquid components of fruits and vegetables, leaving behind the fiber-rich pulp. Therefore, juicing does not typically provide increased fiber. Additionally, juices can contain a higher concentration of sugar than whole fruits because the fiber, which helps to slow down the absorption of sugar, has been removed. This can lead to a spike in blood sugar levels after consumption. The other options are incorrect because they contain at least one false statement.
3. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
- B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
- D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.
Correct answer: Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.
4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?
- A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
- B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
- C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
- D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)
Correct answer: A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.
5. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.
- B. Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep.
- C. You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges.
- D. Monitor for weight gain while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Paroxetine, an antidepressant commonly used for OCD, typically takes 1 to 4 weeks before the client experiences the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, informing the client that it may take several weeks before feeling the medication's effects is crucial to manage expectations and ensure compliance with the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because Paroxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its activating effects and may cause insomnia if taken before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because Paroxetine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing obsessive urges. Choice D is incorrect because although weight gain can be a side effect of Paroxetine, it is not a priority instruction compared to the delayed onset of therapeutic effects.
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