ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored
1. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
- A. Kidney
- B. Liver
- C. Blood
- D. Heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin primarily affects the liver where it inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
3. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.
4. What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Glucagon
- D. Vitamin B
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.
5. A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone for Addison's disease. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administering a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone
- B. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing
- C. Collecting additional information from the client about his history of Addison's disease
- D. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Clients with Addison's disease taking hydrocortisone are at risk of acute adrenal insufficiency during times of stress such as surgery. Administering supplemental doses of hydrocortisone helps prevent acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) in these situations, making it the priority action to ensure the client's safety. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important postoperatively but not the priority at this time. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is important but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in this situation.
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