Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning.
• D. Take this medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning to enhance its absorption. This timing allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Taking it with food, at bedtime, or with an antacid may interfere with its absorption and reduce its efficacy.

2. A client informs the nurse about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Warfarin
• C. Digoxin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Warfarin. Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction. Gingko Biloba can suppress coagulation and increase the risk of bleeding or hemorrhage when taken with anticoagulants like Warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A), Digoxin (choice C), and Lisinopril (choice D) do not have significant interactions with Gingko Biloba.

3. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Increased salivation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Discoloration of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication over 5 minutes.
• B. Administer a dose of Naloxone prior to giving the Hydromorphone.
• C. Assess the client's blood pressure prior to administration.
• D. Inject the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional preparing to administer IV Hydromorphone to a client is to administer the medication over 5 minutes. This slow administration is crucial to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Administering the medication rapidly can lead to adverse effects. Option B, administering Naloxone prior to Hydromorphone, is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not as a routine pre-medication. Option C, assessing the client's blood pressure before administration, is important but not the immediate action to take to reduce adverse effects of Hydromorphone. Option D, injecting the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue, is incorrect as Hydromorphone is meant for intravenous administration for rapid onset of action.

5. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Cardiac glycosides
• C. Beta blockers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

Similar Questions