Nursing Elites

1. When a client is starting long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma, what adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which can lead to fluid retention. Monitoring weight changes is important as it helps in early identification of this adverse effect, enabling timely interventions to manage it. Choice B, nervousness, is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Bradycardia (Choice C) is unlikely as prednisone usually causes tachycardia or increased heart rate. Constipation (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone compared to weight gain.

2. What symptoms should a patient taking Omeprazole report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Black, tarry stools
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients taking Omeprazole should report black, tarry stools, diarrhea, or abdominal pain to the healthcare provider because these symptoms could indicate serious side effects associated with the medication. Black, tarry stools may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding, diarrhea can be a sign of a gastrointestinal infection or adverse drug reaction, and abdominal pain may indicate underlying issues that need attention. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer as all these symptoms are important to report for proper evaluation and management.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

4. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.

5. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

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