Nursing Elites

1. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Take this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it is essential to avoid salt substitutes containing potassium, which can further increase potassium levels in the body. This instruction aims to prevent potential adverse effects and ensure the client's safety while taking Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once a day in the morning, it can lead to hyperkalemia (so increasing potassium-rich foods is not advised), and it can be taken with or without food.

2. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

• A. Lowered heart rate
• B. Increased myocardial contractility
• C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
• D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

3. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
• B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
• C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.

4. What is the correct definition of drug absorption?

• A. Movement of a drug from the site of administration to various tissues of the body
• B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs
• C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter
• D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct definition of drug absorption is the movement of a drug from the site of administration into various tissues of the body. It is the process by which a drug is taken up and enters the systemic circulation. Choice B describes the pharmacokinetics of drugs, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, but it is not a specific definition of drug absorption. Choice C is unrelated to drug absorption, as it refers to over-the-counter drugs. Choice D is too vague and does not specifically address the process of drug absorption.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with epinephrine?

• A. Renal disease
• B. Asthma
• C. Hypotension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epinephrine is not used to treat renal disease. Epinephrine is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma, hypotension, and glaucoma, but it is not an appropriate treatment for renal disease. Renal disease requires specific management strategies that do not involve the use of epinephrine.

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