Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not related to drug toxicity of Atenolol?

• A. CHF
• B. Tachycardia
• C. AV block
• D. Sedative appearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, is not typically associated with tachycardia. Instead, drug toxicity of Atenolol is more commonly linked to bradycardia due to its beta-blocking effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Symptoms of Atenolol toxicity may include heart failure (CHF), AV block, and a sedative appearance, but not tachycardia.

2. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

3. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Monitor heart rate daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

4. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

5. A client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine during the repair of a skin laceration. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Seizures
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction to local anesthetics like Lidocaine. Lidocaine can affect the central nervous system and, in some cases, lead to seizure activity. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of seizures during and after the administration of Lidocaine.

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