a nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches which of the following statements should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions. Patients should monitor their blood pressure and heart rate regularly to assess the medication's effectiveness and check for adverse effects like bradycardia or hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because Atenolol should not be taken with grapefruit juice, which can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Atenolol typically causes a decrease in heart rate, not a rapid heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Atenolol.

3. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

4. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

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