a nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches which of the following statements should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

2. A client in an outpatient facility is taking Acarbose for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function test. Acarbose, used for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, can lead to liver toxicity with long-term use. Monitoring liver function tests periodically is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction early and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Acarbose does not directly affect WBC, serum potassium, or platelet count levels.

3. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chronic kidney disease is a contraindication for the use of Epoetin Alfa because it can worsen hypertension, increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and lead to adverse outcomes. Epoetin Alfa is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, but in the presence of chronic kidney disease, it can exacerbate hypertension and contribute to cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the contraindication of Epoetin Alfa in the presence of chronic kidney disease.

5. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

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