a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lithium which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lithium, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a consistent sodium intake is crucial when taking Lithium to help regulate lithium levels in the body and prevent toxicity. Sodium levels can impact the effectiveness and safety of Lithium therapy. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day (Choice A) is not appropriate and could lead to dehydration. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice C) may vary depending on the individual's schedule but is not a critical instruction. Expecting to have frequent headaches (Choice D) is not a common side effect of Lithium.

2. A client with chronic Neutropenia is receiving Filgrastim. What action should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bone pain is a known adverse effect of Filgrastim, which is dose-related. By assessing for bone pain, the nurse can monitor for this common side effect. Acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic can be used to manage the bone pain associated with Filgrastim. Assessing for right lower quadrant pain, crackles in the bases of the lungs, or heart murmurs would not directly relate to the adverse effects of Filgrastim in a client with chronic Neutropenia.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

4. A client with Graves' disease is being educated by a nurse about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that is commonly used in Graves' disease to decrease symptoms such as tremors and fast heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland. Choice B is incorrect as Propranolol is not used to prevent excess glucose in the blood. Choice D is also incorrect as Propranolol does not directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body.

5. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

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