Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Sodium level
• C. Hemoglobin A1C
• D. BUN

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels when taking Furosemide because the medication can lead to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of Furosemide, a loop diuretic, due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Therefore, choices B (Sodium level), C (Hemoglobin A1C), and D (BUN) are incorrect as they are not directly influenced by Furosemide therapy for heart failure.

2. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?

• A. Beta-blockers
• B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.

3. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Drink 2 liters of water daily.
• B. Avoid taking the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Limit vitamin C intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take an iron supplement while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This helps reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect of allopurinol use. Adequate hydration is essential to prevent kidney stone formation and maintain kidney function while taking this medication.

4. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

5. Which of the following is not directly related to the drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

• A. Nausea
• B. Renal dysfunction
• C. Anemia
• D. Muscle wasting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ibuprofen is known to cause adverse effects such as nausea, renal dysfunction, and anemia. However, muscle wasting is not a common toxicity associated with Ibuprofen use. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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