Nursing Elites

1. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

2. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Blocks hormone receptors
• B. Increases immune response
• C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
• D. Stops DNA replication during cell division

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

3. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Nitrite
• C. CaEDTA
• D. Dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

4. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake.
• C. Expect reddish-orange urine.
• D. Avoid high-protein foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.

5. A client with breast cancer is being taught by a nurse about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding.
• B. You should avoid contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines.
• C. You should take aspirin for minor aches and pains.
• D. You should consume a diet low in protein to reduce the risk of renal damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. Chemotherapy can decrease platelet counts, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and oral trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines is crucial to prevent infections in immunocompromised clients. Aspirin should be avoided due to its blood-thinning effects that can increase the risk of bleeding. A diet low in protein is not recommended as cancer clients often require adequate protein intake for healing and recovery.

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