Nursing Elites

1. In which patient could the drug Senna potentially be indicated?

• A. A patient with an eating disorder
• B. A patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
• C. A patient with anal fissures
• D. A patient with a history of hemorrhoids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Senna is a stimulant laxative commonly used to treat constipation by stimulating bowel movements. It is typically indicated for patients who have not passed stool in several days, thereby helping to relieve constipation. Patients with eating disorders may require different treatments related to their condition. Patients with anal fissures or a history of hemorrhoids may need treatments targeted at those specific issues, which may not involve Senna.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can reduce saliva production, leading to dry mouth. To alleviate this symptom, the client should be advised to increase fluid intake or use sugar-free gum or candy. Monitoring for dry mouth is important to prevent complications such as oral health issues. Drowsiness, weight gain, and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine but are less common compared to dry mouth. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for dry mouth as it's a more prevalent adverse effect associated with this medication.

3. A client with chronic Neutropenia is receiving Filgrastim. What action should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim?

• A. Assess for bone pain.
• B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
• C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
• D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bone pain is a known adverse effect of Filgrastim, which is dose-related. By assessing for bone pain, the nurse can monitor for this common side effect. Acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic can be used to manage the bone pain associated with Filgrastim. Assessing for right lower quadrant pain, crackles in the bases of the lungs, or heart murmurs would not directly relate to the adverse effects of Filgrastim in a client with chronic Neutropenia.

4. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Naloxone
• D. Toradol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.

5. A client is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypertension
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Carboplatin is known to cause ototoxicity as a serious adverse effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs or symptoms of hearing loss or other auditory issues to address them promptly. Incorrect Choices Rationale: A) Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with carboplatin. C) Hypertension is not a typical finding to monitor for specifically related to carboplatin treatment. D) Bradycardia is not a primary concern when monitoring a client on carboplatin.

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