ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. In which patient could the drug Senna potentially be indicated?
- A. A patient with an eating disorder
- B. A patient who has not passed stool in 5 days
- C. A patient with anal fissures
- D. A patient with a history of hemorrhoids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Senna is a stimulant laxative commonly used to treat constipation by stimulating bowel movements. It is typically indicated for patients who have not passed stool in several days, thereby helping to relieve constipation. Patients with eating disorders may require different treatments related to their condition. Patients with anal fissures or a history of hemorrhoids may need treatments targeted at those specific issues, which may not involve Senna.
2. What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Naloxone
- D. Toradol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.
3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Edema
- B. Constipation
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.
4. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication one hour before chemotherapy.
- B. You may experience a headache while taking this medication.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause temporary hearing loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience a headache while taking Ondansetron. Headache is a common side effect of this medication, and clients need to be informed about this potential adverse reaction to enhance their understanding and management of side effects. The other statements are incorrect because Ondansetron is usually taken 30 minutes before chemotherapy, not one hour before (choice A). There is no specific need to increase potassium intake while taking Ondansetron (choice C), and temporary hearing loss is not a common side effect associated with this medication (choice D).
5. When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Infuse the medication over 1 hour.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes during infusion.
- C. Administer a stool softener.
- D. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours during infusion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.
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