ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can lead to toxicity, which can manifest as various signs and symptoms, including bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect and manage potential toxicity early. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect a persistent, dry cough.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect a persistent, dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as a side effect. This should be reported to the healthcare provider if it becomes bothersome. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so the client is aware and can seek appropriate guidance if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Lisinopril with food is not required. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not a specific instruction for Lisinopril, and taking the medication at bedtime is not a typical recommendation associated with this medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for Simvastatin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication at bedtime.
- B. I should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
- C. I will need to monitor my blood sugar closely while taking this medication.
- D. I will stop taking the medication if I develop muscle pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Grapefruit can increase the levels of simvastatin in the blood, leading to an increased risk of serious side effects, including muscle pain or damage. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication to prevent potential complications.
4. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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