Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• D. Expect a dry cough.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 6.5 mL
• B. 7 mL
• C. 5 mL
• D. 8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.

3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. Neutropenia refers to a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important white blood cells in fighting infection. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is essential to detect neutropenia early. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is more commonly associated with diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an increase in sodium levels, not typically caused by Captopril. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like Captopril.

4. A client has a prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect your urine to turn orange.
• D. Avoid prolonged sunlight exposure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. To counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance, the client should be advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. This instruction helps prevent potential complications associated with low potassium levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide in the morning does not affect its effectiveness; urine turning orange is not an expected side effect of Furosemide; and avoiding prolonged sunlight exposure is not directly related to Furosemide use.

5. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Taking four medications decreases the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Taking four medications reduces the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Taking four medications reduces the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Taking four medications decreases the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of multiple medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacterial resistance. The use of four medications helps to target the bacteria from different angles, making it harder for them to develop resistance to the treatment. This approach is essential to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment regimen and to prevent the spread of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for using multiple medications in tuberculosis treatment is to prevent the development of bacterial resistance, not to decrease the risk of allergic reactions, adverse reactions, or affecting the tuberculin skin test results.

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