ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
- B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
- C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.
2. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake.
- C. Expect reddish-orange urine.
- D. Avoid high-protein foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.
3. What classification of drug is Penicillin?
- A. Antiarrhythmic
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Antibacterial
- D. Mood stabilizer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Penicillin is classified as an antibacterial drug, specifically used to treat bacterial infections. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria, making it an effective treatment for various bacterial infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Penicillin does not belong to these drug classifications. Penicillin does not have any direct effect on heart rhythm (antiarrhythmic), does not treat seizures (anticonvulsant), and is not used to stabilize mood (mood stabilizer).
4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take sucralfate with meals.
- B. Take sucralfate 1 hr before meals.
- C. Take sucralfate with antacids.
- D. Take sucralfate 2 hours after meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.
5. A healthcare professional is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the patient's platelet count is essential because a decrease in platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding. By assessing the platelet count, the healthcare professional can detect any potential adverse effects related to the medication and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. White blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose levels are not directly affected by Clopidogrel, so they are not the primary values to monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication.
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