Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.

2. What is the classification of Ondansetron?

• A. Antihypertensive
• B. Antiarrhythmic
• C. Antiemetic
• D. Antiulcer agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic. It is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially in patients undergoing chemotherapy or surgery. Choice A, Antihypertensive, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to treat high blood pressure. Choice B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to manage heart rhythm abnormalities. Choice D, Antiulcer agent, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not primarily indicated for treating ulcers.

3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

4. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased appetite
• B. Explosive diarrhea
• C. Decreased pulse rate
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? Amitriptyline is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down or sitting to a standing position. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent falls and related injuries. Educating the client about moving slowly and changing positions gradually can help mitigate this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not commonly associated with Amitriptyline use. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

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