ATI RN
ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical
1. A client has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?
- A. Confusion
- B. Weakness
- C. Increased intracranial pressure
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, weakness is a common manifestation due to the immune system attacking the communication between nerves and muscles. Monitoring for weakness is crucial to assess the disease progression and determine the effectiveness of treatment. Confusion is not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Increased intracranial pressure and increased urinary output are not directly associated with this condition.
2. When caring for a client with acute renal failure, which laboratory value is most important to monitor?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum chloride
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure, monitoring serum potassium is crucial because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalemia, which can result in life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated potassium levels need close monitoring and prompt interventions to prevent serious complications.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
4. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Albuterol (Proventil)
- B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
- C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- D. Fluticasone (Flovent)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Increased temperature
- B. Absent breath sounds
- C. Productive cough
- D. Incisional discomfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Absent breath sounds may indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication post lung biopsy. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress.
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