Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?

• A. Confusion
• B. Weakness
• C. Increased intracranial pressure
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, weakness is a common manifestation due to the immune system attacking the communication between nerves and muscles. Monitoring for weakness is crucial to assess the disease progression and determine the effectiveness of treatment. Confusion is not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Increased intracranial pressure and increased urinary output are not directly associated with this condition.

2. A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the client's cardiac rhythm as shown below. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess the client's blood pressure and level of consciousness.
• B. Call the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Obtain a permit for an emergency temporary pacemaker insertion.
• D. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ECG strip shows sinus bradycardia, which is common in clients with an inferior wall MI. This rhythm can lead to decreased perfusion due to bradycardia and blocks. The most crucial initial action for the nurse is to assess the client's hemodynamic status, including blood pressure and level of consciousness. This assessment will help determine the immediate needs of the client. Calling the health care provider or the Rapid Response Team, obtaining a permit for a pacemaker insertion, or preparing to administer antidysrhythmic medication may be necessary based on the assessment findings, but the priority is to evaluate the client's current condition first.

3. A nurse in the PACU is assessing a client who has an endotracheal tube (ET) in place and observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue
• B. Passage of the ET tube into the esophagus
• C. Movement of the ET tube into the right main bronchus
• D. Infection of the vocal cords

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration, it indicates that the endotracheal tube (ET) may have migrated into the right main bronchus, leading to uneven chest expansion. This can result in inadequate ventilation to the left lung, causing respiratory compromise. The other options, such as blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue, passage of the ET tube into the esophagus, and infection of the vocal cords, do not directly explain the observed chest wall asymmetry and respiratory distress.

4. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?

• A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
• B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
• C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.

5. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
• B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
• D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.

Similar Questions