a client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics the nurse should take which
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers, is the best course of action. This ensures that the client's best interests are considered and that proper authorization is obtained. Option A, obtaining a court order, is not necessary in this scenario and could delay the surgery. Option B, signing the consent on behalf of the client, is not appropriate as it may raise ethical and legal concerns. Option C, sending the client to surgery without a signed consent form, is not advisable as it violates the principles of informed consent and places the client at risk.

2. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member witnessed by two healthcare providers is the appropriate action to ensure informed consent is obtained. Option A is not necessary and involves legal proceedings. Option B is not ethical as the nurse cannot sign the consent on behalf of the client. Option C is unsafe and violates the client's rights by proceeding without proper consent.

3. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.

4. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.

5. The nurse administers 2 units of salt-poor albumin to a client with portal hypertension and ascites. The nurse explains to the client that this is administered to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevate the circulating blood volume. Salt-poor albumin is given to increase the circulating blood volume, which helps reduce ascites by improving fluid distribution within the body. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because salt-poor albumin is not administered to provide nutrients, increase protein stores, or divert blood flow away from the liver.

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