Nursing Elites

1. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.

3. Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?

• A. Six geographical regions of the United States with command authority in each region
• B. Five levels of health service support, each providing different levels of health care services
• C. Primary and secondary health care regions, each containing a MEDDAC or MEDCEN
• D. Eight geographical areas of responsibility designated as health services support regions, each of which is subdivided into two or more health service areas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, medical care under MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility. Each of these areas is designated as a health services support region, and they are further subdivided into two or more health service areas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how the medical care under MEDCOM is divided.

4. Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?

• A. 68A30
• B. 68WM6
• C. Physician assistant
• D. 6.80E+21

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.

5. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

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