ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?
- A. The kidneys remove hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate ions.
- B. The kidneys convert ammonia into urea, which is excreted in the urine.
- C. The kidneys produce aldosterone to regulate sodium levels.
- D. The kidneys secrete renin to regulate blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.
2. The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:
- A. It takes at least three chemical substances (amino acids, neuropeptides, and monoamines) to stimulate any activity between the cells.
- B. There is a symbiotic relationship; therefore, the end result will be depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
- C. The combination of GABA with a receptor site is inhibitory since it causes the local nerve membrane to become hyperpolarized and less excitable.
- D. The neurotransmitters will interact with cholinergic receptors to bind to acetylcholine in order to produce hypopolarization within the cell.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.
3. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse be most concerned about?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- C. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Cardiovascular events such as stroke and myocardial infarction are the most concerning adverse effects of testosterone therapy, especially in older patients. Choice A, increased risk of breast cancer, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy in males. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is a potential adverse effect but is not the most concerning. Choice D, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a consideration in patients with a history of prostate cancer or those with prostate carcinoma, not typically in patients receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism.
4. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
5. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.
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