Nursing Elites

1. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

• A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
• B. ALT and AST
• C. Urine culture and sensitivity
• D. Erythrocyte count and differential

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

2. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What key instruction should the nurse provide regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. Apply the medication once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting healthcare providers can be harmful. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food is not necessary for this specific drug. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken orally, not applied topically.

3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
• D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

4. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?

• A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
• B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
• C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
• D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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