a patient receiving isoniazid inh and rifampin rifadin has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes which laboratory value
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

2. A patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. She is prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). What effect will this medication provide in the treatment of ischemic heart disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication that promotes the growth of white blood cells. In the context of ischemic heart disease, promoting angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, can improve blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing ischemia and potentially improving cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A and B are incorrect because filgrastim does not directly affect platelet levels. Choice D is also incorrect as filgrastim does not prevent thrombus formation.

3. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stage IV pressure ulcer is a deep wound involving tissue loss that typically heals by secondary intention. This process involves the wound healing from the bottom up with granulation tissue and often results in significant scarring. Choice A, a finger laceration, would generally heal by primary intention due to its clean edges and minimal tissue loss. Choice C, a needlestick injury, is likely to be sutured and heal by primary intention since it is a small, clean wound. Choice D, an incision from an open appendectomy, is usually closed with sutures and heals by primary intention as well.

4. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In assessing a child for migraines, asking about food allergies is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his headaches. Food allergies are unrelated to the typical symptoms and triggers of migraines, such as family history, associated symptoms like nausea and vomiting, and pain-free intervals between headaches. Therefore, in this scenario, focusing on food allergies is less relevant for identifying migraines as the cause of the boy's headaches.

5. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.

Similar Questions

A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?
A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?
What are the characteristics of the inflammatory process?
What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses