a nurse is teaching a client who has tuberculosis and is to start combination drug therapy which of the following medications should the nurse plan to
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.

3. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

4. A client is about to undergo surgery and is unsure about the procedure despite signing the consent. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client expresses doubts about a procedure after signing the consent form, it is crucial to stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon. This is important to ensure that the client's concerns are addressed, and there is a clear understanding of the procedure. Reassuring the client and proceeding with the surgery (choice A) may violate the client's autonomy and right to informed consent. Proceeding with the surgery but documenting the concerns (choice C) is not sufficient as the client's doubts should be resolved before proceeding. Postponing the surgery until further clarification is provided (choice D) may be necessary, but the immediate step should be to consult with the surgeon to address the client's concerns.

5. A nurse sees a healthcare provider administer an incorrect medication dose but does not report the error. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse witnesses a healthcare provider administering an incorrect medication dose, the first step should be to report the error to the nurse manager immediately. Reporting medication errors is crucial for patient safety as it allows prompt intervention to prevent harm. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the situation can jeopardize patient safety. Choice C, while addressing the error directly, may not ensure proper documentation and follow-up. Choice D, filing an anonymous report, is not as effective as directly informing the nurse manager who can take appropriate action and follow-up on the incident.

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