how should a nurse manage a patient with deep vein thrombosis dvt
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism is crucial in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it can be a life-threatening complication. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed is important for preventing clot progression, the immediate concern is detecting potential pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings and encouraging leg elevation are beneficial measures for managing DVT symptoms but are not as critical as monitoring for pulmonary embolism.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

3. A health care provider asks the nurse to administer a medication with a dosage significantly higher than usual. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a health care provider orders a medication with a dosage significantly higher than usual, the nurse's initial action should be to question the provider and verify the dose. This is crucial to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without clarification could potentially harm the patient if there was an error in the prescription. Administering half the dosage as a precaution (Choice C) is not a safe practice as it deviates from the prescribed order. Refusing to administer the medication without clarification (Choice D) is important, but the first step should be to seek clarification from the provider to prevent any unnecessary delays in patient care.

4. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.

5. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

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