a client with terminal cancer is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate on assessment of the client what does the nurse check
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Test Bank

1. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.

2. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

3. A nurse on the night shift is making client rounds. When the nurse checks a client who is 97 years old and has successfully been treated for heart failure, he notes that the client is not breathing. If the client does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the nurse should take which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the appropriate action when a client is not breathing and does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. CPR is considered an emergency treatment that can be provided without client consent in life-threatening situations. Calling the health care provider or nursing supervisor for directions, as well as administering oxygen without addressing the lack of breathing, would delay critical life-saving interventions. Therefore, administering CPR is the most urgent and necessary action to perform in this scenario.

4. A client with a pleural drainage system to suction has gentle bubbling of the water seal. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle bubbling is a normal finding for a client with a pleural drainage system to suction, so it simply needs to be documented for monitoring purposes. If the bubbling becomes vigorous, it could indicate a leak, which would then require further investigation by the nurse. Therefore, the correct action at this point is to document the finding. Notifying the physician is not necessary for gentle bubbling as it is expected. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the system is inappropriate and could potentially harm the client as there is no indication for such actions based on the scenario provided.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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