Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

• A. Temperature
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.

2. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

• A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
• C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
• D. Corgard (nadolol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

3. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

4. In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?

• A. The healthcare team will proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed in emergencies.
• B. The healthcare team will wait until the client's family can be contacted for consent.
• C. The healthcare team will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent.
• D. The healthcare team will obtain consent from the client's legal guardian before proceeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.

5. The client asks the nurse not to tell anyone outside of the care team about his positive HIV diagnosis. What response is most appropriate?

• A. "I have to inform all clients on the unit of your diagnosis as it is transmissible."?
• B. "I will not communicate your diagnosis to anyone without your permission."?
• C. "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."?
• D. "You should not be concerned with who I share your diagnosis with."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."? It is important to uphold patient confidentiality, but in the case of certain communicable diseases like HIV, there are legal requirements for mandatory reporting to public health authorities such as the CDC. Option A is incorrect because it violates patient confidentiality and does not consider legal obligations. Option B, while respecting the client's wishes, may not align with the legal requirement for reporting certain communicable diseases. Option D is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns and rights regarding their health information.

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