a nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has developed pulmonary edema what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has developed pulmonary edema. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the patient in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pulmonary edema by reducing venous return to the heart and enhancing respiratory mechanics. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority over positioning in this situation. Administering oxygen (Choice C) is essential, but the priority action for improving oxygenation is the positioning of the patient. Monitoring lung sounds (Choice D) is crucial for ongoing assessment but is not the priority action when the patient is in distress with pulmonary edema.

2. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.

5. What is the definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional. This choice is correct because malpractice occurs when a professional does not meet the standard of care expected in their field, leading to harm or injury to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because malpractice is specifically about the failure to meet professional standards of care, rather than personal standards, miscommunication within a healthcare team, or inadequate documentation of patient care.

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