Nursing Elites

1. If a nurse is uncomfortable documenting a verbal prescription, what should the nurse do?

• A. Document the prescription without seeking clarification.
• B. Clarify the verbal prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Refuse to document the prescription.
• D. Speak with the client's family to clarify the situation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse is uncomfortable documenting a verbal prescription, the best course of action is to clarify the prescription with the healthcare provider. This is crucial to ensure that the information is accurate and to provide safe and appropriate care. Option A is incorrect because blindly documenting without seeking clarification can lead to errors. Option C is incorrect as refusing to document the prescription altogether is not in the best interest of the patient. Option D is also incorrect as speaking with the client's family is not the appropriate step to clarify a verbal prescription; the healthcare provider should be the primary source for this clarification.

2. A patient has an ankle restraint applied. Upon assessment, the nurse finds the toes a light blue color. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Immediately do a complete head-to-toe neurological assessment.
• B. Take the patient's blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and respiratory rate.
• C. Place a blanket over the feet.
• D. Remove the restraint.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to remove the restraint (Choice D). Cyanosis of the toes, indicated by a light blue color, suggests impaired circulation. The priority action is to ensure proper circulation by removing the restraint to prevent further compromise. Choices A and B are not the immediate actions needed for cyanosis related to impaired circulation. Choice C, placing a blanket over the feet, does not address the underlying issue of impaired circulation and could delay appropriate intervention.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Continue taking this medication until you feel better
• B. Take this medication with milk or food
• C. Take the medication with an antacid
• D. Avoid caffeine while taking this medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.

5. A nurse manager is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce the number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections at the facility. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?

• A. Develop an MRSA protocol for implementation.
• B. Provide educational in-services for staff.
• C. Evaluate outcomes resulting from interventions.
• D. Conduct a chart review to evaluate precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conducting a chart review to evaluate the precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA is the initial step in reducing these infections. By identifying factors contributing to MRSA infections, the nurse manager can develop targeted interventions. Developing an MRSA protocol (choice A) and providing educational in-services (choice B) would be premature without understanding the specific factors at play. Evaluating outcomes (choice C) should come after implementing interventions based on the findings from the chart review.

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