Nursing Elites

1. If a nurse is uncomfortable documenting a verbal prescription, what should the nurse do?

• A. Document the prescription without seeking clarification.
• B. Clarify the verbal prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Refuse to document the prescription.
• D. Speak with the client's family to clarify the situation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse is uncomfortable documenting a verbal prescription, the best course of action is to clarify the prescription with the healthcare provider. This is crucial to ensure that the information is accurate and to provide safe and appropriate care. Option A is incorrect because blindly documenting without seeking clarification can lead to errors. Option C is incorrect as refusing to document the prescription altogether is not in the best interest of the patient. Option D is also incorrect as speaking with the client's family is not the appropriate step to clarify a verbal prescription; the healthcare provider should be the primary source for this clarification.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
• B. SaO2 94%
• C. Respiratory rate 8/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.

3. A client is about to undergo surgery and is unsure about the procedure despite signing the consent. What should the nurse do?

• A. Reassure the client and proceed with the surgery.
• B. Stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon.
• C. Proceed with the surgery but document the client's concerns.
• D. Postpone the surgery until further clarification is provided.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client expresses doubts about a procedure after signing the consent form, it is crucial to stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon. This is important to ensure that the client's concerns are addressed, and there is a clear understanding of the procedure. Reassuring the client and proceeding with the surgery (choice A) may violate the client's autonomy and right to informed consent. Proceeding with the surgery but documenting the concerns (choice C) is not sufficient as the client's doubts should be resolved before proceeding. Postponing the surgery until further clarification is provided (choice D) may be necessary, but the immediate step should be to consult with the surgeon to address the client's concerns.

4. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise
• B. Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
• C. Dietary recommendations, including a low-sodium diet
• D. Medication management, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
• D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

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