Nursing Elites

1. You’re developing the plan of care for a patient experiencing dumping syndrome after a Billroth II procedure. Which dietary instructions do you include?

• A. Omit fluids with meals.
• B. Increase carbohydrate intake.
• C. Decrease protein intake.
• D. Decrease fat intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To manage dumping syndrome, it is important to omit fluids with meals to slow gastric emptying.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on the first postoperative day following a surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which nursing diagnosis is the most important for this client?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Deficient knowledge
• C. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral tissue perfusion is a major concern in the postoperative period following an abdominal aneurysm repair. Peripheral pulses should be checked frequently during the first 24 hours. A weak or absent pulse may be a sign of embolization or graft closure, especially if accompanied by a pale, cold, mottled extremity; the nurse should immediately report this to the surgeon. Risk for infection, deficient knowledge, and activity intolerance are all important nursing diagnoses in the postoperative period, but peripheral tissue perfusion is the most immediate concern.

3. The nurse has given instructions to the client with an ileostomy about foods to eat to thicken the stool. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client stated to eat which of the following foods to make the stools less watery?

• A. Pasta
• B. Boiled rice
• C. Bran
• D. Low-fat cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bran is high in fiber and should not be consumed to thicken the stool as it will make the stools more watery.

4. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a client with peritonitis?

• A. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL
• C. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count above 15,000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A white blood cell count above 15,000 is indicative of an infection, such as peritonitis.

5. Britney, a 20 y.o. student is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory findings do you expect to be abnormal for this patient?

• A. Serum creatinine and BUN
• B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
• C. Serum amylase and lipase
• D. Cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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