which therapeutic approach is considered most effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder ptsd
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. Which therapeutic approach is considered most effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive processing therapy is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that has been shown to be highly effective in treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). This therapy focuses on helping individuals process and make sense of their traumatic experiences, leading to symptom reduction and improved coping mechanisms. Psychoanalysis, medication management, and group therapy can be beneficial in some cases, but cognitive processing therapy is specifically tailored for addressing the symptoms and underlying causes of PTSD. Psychoanalysis may not be as effective for PTSD due to its focus on unconscious conflicts rather than trauma processing. Medication management can be useful as an adjunct to therapy but does not address the core issues of PTSD. Group therapy can provide support but may not offer the individualized approach that cognitive processing therapy provides.

2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

3. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

4. The school nurse has been alerted to the fact that an 8-year-old boy routinely playacts as a police officer, 'locking up' other children on the playground to the point where the children get scared. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely an indication of:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The behavior of an 8-year-old boy playacting as a police officer and 'locking up' other children to the point of scaring them is likely a symptom of traumatization. Children may reenact traumatic experiences through play, and acting out aggressive or controlling roles can be a sign of underlying trauma. This behavior should be further assessed and addressed with appropriate support and intervention to help the child process and cope with any potential trauma.

5. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

Similar Questions

Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?
When assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?
Which of the following is a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
You have been working closely with a patient for the past month. Today he tells you he is looking forward to meeting with his new psychiatrist but frowns and avoids eye contact while reporting this to you. Which of the following responses would most likely be therapeutic?
A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses