ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Appearance and behavior
- B. Thought processes
- C. Mood and affect
- D. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the greater the likelihood that the illness will be treated with sensitivity and compassion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.
2. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:
- A. Reduce anxiety symptoms
- B. Improve mood
- C. Increase energy levels
- D. Enhance social interactions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.
3. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?
- A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
- B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
- C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's unhealthy responses and contributing factors.
- D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Psychiatrists use the criteria outlined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) to determine diagnoses. The DSM-5 provides standardized criteria for the classification of mental disorders, ensuring accurate and reliable diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D are inaccurate as hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association is not responsible for psychiatric diagnostic criteria. Choice C describes a more general approach to assessment and does not specifically address the standardized criteria used in psychiatric diagnosis.
5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Tardive dyskinesia
- B. Muscle tension
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Side effects of antipsychotic medications commonly include tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Muscle tension is not typically associated with antipsychotic medication use. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements, orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, and hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels. Monitoring these side effects is crucial for early detection and management, but muscle tension is not a typical side effect of antipsychotic medications.
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