ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Appearance and behavior
- B. Thought processes
- C. Mood and affect
- D. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the greater the likelihood that the illness will be treated with sensitivity and compassion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.
2. When preparing a teaching plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder, which information should a healthcare professional include?
- A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants
- B. Engaging in regular physical activity
- C. Practicing relaxation techniques
- D. Keeping a journal of anxiety triggers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Practicing relaxation techniques. This is a crucial aspect of managing generalized anxiety disorder. Techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness can effectively reduce anxiety levels and promote calmness. These techniques provide valuable coping mechanisms to help individuals with generalized anxiety disorder deal with stress and anxiety.\nChoice A, avoiding caffeine and other stimulants, can be beneficial but is not as central to managing generalized anxiety disorder as practicing relaxation techniques.\nChoice B, engaging in regular physical activity, is also helpful for managing anxiety, but relaxation techniques are more specific and targeted for addressing symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder.\nChoice D, keeping a journal of anxiety triggers, may be a useful strategy to identify triggers but does not directly address the immediate management of anxiety symptoms, unlike practicing relaxation techniques.
3. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
- B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
- C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.
4. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
- A. Perfectionism
- B. Flexibility
- C. Generosity
- D. Spontaneity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.
5. Which of the following is identified as a psychoneurotic response to severe anxiety as it appears in the DSM-5?
- A. Somatic symptom disorder
- B. Grief responses
- C. Psychosis
- D. Bipolar disorder
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somatic symptom disorder. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by preoccupation with physical symptoms for which there is no demonstrable organic pathology. One of the diagnostic criteria is a high level of anxiety about health concerns or illness. In the DSM-5, somatic symptom disorders are classified under the category of somatic symptom and related disorders, which encompass conditions where psychological factors play a significant role in the development, exacerbation, or maintenance of physical symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Grief responses, psychosis, and bipolar disorder are not specifically categorized as psychoneurotic responses to severe anxiety in the DSM-5.
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