Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

2. During pregnancy, a woman is in a relationship with a male who routinely abuses her. Her unborn child may engage in high-risk behavior as a teen as a result of:

• A. Maternal stress
• B. Parental nurturing
• C. Appropriate stress responses in the brain
• D. Memories of the abuse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maternal stress during pregnancy can have long-term effects on the child's behavior and stress responses. Research shows that exposure to high levels of stress hormones in the womb can influence the developing fetal brain and the child's future behavior, potentially leading to high-risk behaviors during adolescence.

3. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

4. A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to ignore the voices.
• B. Engage the patient in a reality-based activity.
• C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce stimulation.
• D. Ask the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging the patient in a reality-based activity is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with schizophrenia experiencing hallucinations. This intervention can help distract the patient from the hallucinations and reorient them to the present, promoting a connection with reality and potentially reducing distress associated with the hallucinations. Choice A, encouraging the patient to ignore the voices, may not be effective as it can be challenging for the patient to dismiss the hallucinations. Choice C, providing a quiet environment, is helpful but may not directly address the hallucinations. Choice D, asking the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail, may increase the patient's focus on the hallucinations, potentially worsening distress.

5. A client is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness due to the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?

• A. The client's behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression.
• B. The client's behaviors are extensive, indicating the presence of mental illness.
• C. The client's behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms.
• D. The client's behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should interpret the client's behaviors as not indicative of mental illness. The client is experiencing normal feelings of sadness following the loss of a pet, and the fact that the client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine remain unchanged suggests no functional impairment. It is essential to recognize that experiencing occasional feelings of sadness in response to a significant life event, such as the death of a pet, does not necessarily signify mental illness, especially when there is no significant impairment in daily functioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they incorrectly suggest that the client's behaviors indicate mental illness, which is not the case in this context.

Similar Questions