Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

2. When assessing a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypervigilance
• B. Insomnia
• C. Flashbacks
• D. Suicidal ideation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with PTSD commonly exhibit symptoms such as hypervigilance, insomnia, flashbacks, difficulty concentrating, and increased irritability. Hypervigilance refers to an enhanced state of awareness and alertness, often seen in individuals with PTSD as they are constantly on guard for potential threats. Insomnia is a common sleep disturbance associated with PTSD, where individuals may have trouble falling or staying asleep. Flashbacks involve re-experiencing the traumatic event as if it is occurring in the present moment. Suicidal ideation, while a serious concern in mental health, is not a hallmark symptom specifically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct finding that the nurse should expect when assessing a client diagnosed with PTSD is hypervigilance.

3. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?

• A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
• B. Generalized anxiety disorder
• C. Persistent depressive disorder
• D. Substance use disorder

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Substance use disorder. Ramelteon is preferred for patients with substance use disorder because it lacks abuse potential. This makes it a safer choice for individuals with a history of substance misuse. Choosing a medication with a lower risk of abuse in this population is crucial to prevent potential misuse or dependence issues.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to provide medication instruction for a patient. Which of the following understandings about anxiety will be essential to effective instruction?

• A. Learning is best when anxiety is moderate to severe.
• B. Learning is enhanced when anxiety is mild.
• C. Panic-level anxiety helps the provider teach better.
• D. Severe anxiety is characterized by intense concentration and enhances the attention span.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mild anxiety sharpens the senses, increases the perceptual field, and results in heightened awareness of the environment, which enhances learning. As anxiety increases, attention span decreases, making learning more difficult. Therefore, mild anxiety is more conducive to effective instruction compared to moderate to severe anxiety, panic-level anxiety, or severe anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because moderate to severe anxiety impairs learning. Choice C is incorrect as panic-level anxiety can be overwhelming and hinder the learning process. Choice D is incorrect because severe anxiety typically leads to impaired attention span rather than enhancing it.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

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