which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.

3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.

4. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

Similar Questions

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