which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

3. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

4. A psychiatric nurse observes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia is pacing up and down the corridor. The client is muttering to himself, and his hands are trembling. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to remove the client to a quieter environment. This intervention aims to reduce stimuli that may be contributing to the client's agitation and help create a calmer and more supportive setting for the client. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as addressing the environmental factors should come first before exploring symptoms, offering medication, or engaging in relaxation exercises.

5. In a client's history, a significant indicator suggesting marginal coping skills and the need for careful risk assessment for violence is a history of

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A history of chemical dependence is a critical factor indicating marginal coping skills and the need for assessing the risk of violence. Substance abuse can impair judgment, increase impulsivity, and escalate the likelihood of violent behavior. It is essential to thoroughly evaluate and address substance abuse issues in clients to enhance treatment outcomes and ensure safety.

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