Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?

• A. A woman channels her energy into a new hobby after a breakup.
• B. A man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine.
• C. A student focuses on studying to avoid thinking about a recent argument.
• D. An athlete channels competitive impulses into a successful sports career.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.

3. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?

• A. Appearance and behavior
• B. Giving advice
• C. Mood and affect
• D. Cognitive function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.

4. A healthcare provider is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. The client should avoid all stressful situations.
• B. Encourage the client to get plenty of rest.
• C. Make sure the client takes prescribed medications regularly.
• D. Provide the client with information about support groups.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Make sure the client takes prescribed medications regularly.' Consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing the symptoms and stabilizing mood in individuals with bipolar disorder. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding all stressful situations is often not feasible and not the primary treatment approach for bipolar disorder. Choice B, while important, is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is helpful but not as essential as medication adherence for the treatment of bipolar disorder.

5. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been prescribed an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly used for this condition?

• A. Methylphenidate
• B. Sertraline
• C. Lithium
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sertraline. Sertraline, an SSRI, is commonly used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and tolerability. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant used for ADHD and narcolepsy, not for GAD. Lithium is mainly used for bipolar disorder, not for GAD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, not typically used for GAD.

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