ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
2. Which statement reflects an accurate understanding of the concepts of mental health and mental illness?
- A. The concepts are rigid and religiously based.
- B. The concepts are multidimensional and culturally defined.
- C. The concepts are universal and unchanging.
- D. The concepts are unidimensional and fixed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Understanding mental health and mental illness as multidimensional and culturally defined is essential for healthcare professionals. Mental health varies across cultures and is influenced by various dimensions such as biological, psychological, social, and spiritual factors. Recognizing these differences helps in providing culturally competent care and understanding the diverse expressions of mental health and illness. Choice A is incorrect because mental health and mental illness are not rigid or solely based on religion. Choice C is incorrect because mental health and mental illness are not universally experienced in the same way and can change over time. Choice D is incorrect because mental health and mental illness are not unidimensional; they involve various factors and are not fixed in nature.
3. In assessing a patient for signs of serotonin syndrome, which of the following symptoms would be consistent with this condition?
- A. Hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia
- B. Hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia
- C. Hypotension, tachycardia, hypothermia
- D. Hypertension, bradycardia, hyperthermia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms: hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia (choice A) are not typical findings in serotonin syndrome. Hypotension, tachycardia, and hypothermia (choice C) are also not consistent with serotonin syndrome. Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperthermia (choice D) do not align with the characteristic symptoms of serotonin syndrome. Recognizing the key symptoms of serotonin syndrome is crucial for prompt identification and intervention to prevent serious complications.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with factitious disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Intentional production of false symptoms
- B. Lack of concern about symptoms
- C. Fear of gaining weight
- D. Unintentional production of false symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with factitious disorder deliberately fabricate or exaggerate symptoms to assume the sick role and garner attention. They may show a lack of concern about their symptoms, a phenomenon known as la belle indifférence. Fear of gaining weight is not typically associated with factitious disorder. Therefore, the correct behavior to expect in a client with factitious disorder is the intentional production of false symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lack of concern about symptoms and fear of gaining weight are not characteristic of factitious disorder. Additionally, factitious disorder involves the intentional, not unintentional, production of false symptoms.
5. Which of the following is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Memory loss
- B. Weight gain
- C. Insomnia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Memory loss, particularly short-term memory loss, is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT can affect memory due to its impact on brain function during and after treatment. While the memory issues are often temporary and tend to improve over time, they are important considerations when discussing the risks and benefits of ECT with patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, insomnia, and increased appetite are not common side effects of ECT.
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