which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Which of the following is not a cultural aspect related to mental illness?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement in option D is incorrect. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the more likely there will be negative responses to mental illness. In such cases, coercive treatments and involuntary hospitalizations are more common, rather than sensitivity and compassion.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to observe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain is a common symptom of major depressive disorder. Individuals with major depressive disorder often experience changes in appetite, leading to weight gain or loss. This symptom is related to disruptions in the individual's eating habits and metabolism, which are commonly associated with depression. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, increased appetite, and restlessness are not typical symptoms of major depressive disorder. In fact, individuals with depression often experience fatigue, changes in appetite, and feelings of restlessness or agitation.

4. During cognitive-behavioral therapy, a 12-year-old patient reports to the nurse practitioner:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is crucial for progress. Choice B demonstrates the patient's ability to identify and correct distorted thoughts, indicating positive advancement in therapy. This cognitive restructuring is a key component of cognitive-behavioral therapy, helping individuals develop healthier thinking patterns and coping strategies.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

Similar Questions

A client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? Select all that apply.
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in the initial weeks of treatment?
When assessing a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which finding should the nurse expect?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours each day washing her hands. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Which activity is most appropriate for a child with ADHD?

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