Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. When interviewing a distressed client who was fired after 15 years of loyal employment, which of the following questions would best assist the nurse in determining the client's appraisal of the situation? Select the one that does not apply.

• A. What coping resources have you used previously in stressful situations?
• B. Have you ever faced a similar stressful situation before?
• C. Who do you think is to blame for this situation?
• D. What do you believe led to your termination from your job?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the nurse to help the client assess their coping mechanisms and perspective on the situation. Questions A and B focus on exploring the client's coping resources and past experiences to guide them towards effective stress management. Asking who is to blame (choice C) is not conducive to evaluating coping abilities; instead, it might elicit a blame-focused response, which can impede progress. Choice D, inquiring about the reason for being fired, is a nontherapeutic approach that does not promote a constructive appraisal of the situation.

3. Which of the following is not a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

• A. Nausea
• B. Insomnia
• C. Weight loss
• D. Sexual dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common side effects of SSRIs include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs; instead, weight gain is more frequently observed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

4. Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drowsiness is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety. Benzodiazepines work by depressing the central nervous system, which can lead to drowsiness as a side effect. This sedative effect is often desired in the treatment of anxiety disorders, but individuals should be cautious when engaging in activities that require alertness, such as driving, while taking these medications. Insomnia, weight gain, and increased appetite are not typically associated with benzodiazepines; instead, drowsiness and sedation are more common side effects.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about their feelings.
• B. Provide a quiet and calm environment.
• C. Encourage the client to exercise vigorously.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During severe anxiety, it is essential to create a quiet and calm environment to help the client feel safe and reduce anxiety levels. Loud or stimulating environments can exacerbate anxiety symptoms, so providing a serene setting can promote relaxation and a sense of security.

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