Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

3. Before discharge from the chemical dependency unit, clients are introduced to different community resources. Which of the following resources would be best for a teenage client, who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days?

• A. Detoxification center
• B. Home care
• C. Assertive community team
• D. Twelve-step recovery group

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a teenage client who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days, the best resource would be a detoxification center. This specialized facility can provide the necessary medical and psychological support to safely manage the withdrawal symptoms associated with substance abuse. It is crucial to ensure a safe and supervised detox process for the client's well-being and successful recovery.

4. Which of the following are cultural aspects of mental illness? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Local or cultural norms define pathological behavior.
• B. The higher the social class the greater the recognition of mental illness behaviors.
• C. Psychiatrists typically see patients when the family can no longer deny the illness.
• D. The greater the cultural distance from the mainstream of society, the greater the likelihood that the illness will be treated with sensitivity and compassion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The fewer ties that a group has with mainstream society, the greater the likelihood of a negative response by society to mental illness. Coercive treatments and involuntary hospitalizations are more common in this population.

5. Which statement made by the nurse demonstrates the best understanding of nonverbal communication?

• A. The patient's verbal and nonverbal communication is often different.
• B. When my patient responds to my question, I check for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication to help validate the response.
• C. If a patient is slumped in the chair, I can be sure he's angry or depressed.
• D. It's easier to understand verbal communication than nonverbal communication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication helps validate the patient's response.

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