which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Which of the following symptoms should a healthcare professional expect to assess in a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Symptoms of major depressive disorder include a loss of interest or pleasure, decreased ability to concentrate, significant weight loss or gain, and feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt. Increased energy is not typically associated with major depressive disorder; instead, fatigue is more common. Clients with major depressive disorder often experience a lack of energy, motivation, or enthusiasm, leading to feelings of lethargy and fatigue. Therefore, increased energy is an atypical symptom in major depressive disorder, making it the correct answer.

3. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

4. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

5. When developing a care plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following interventions should not be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is essential to consider therapeutic interventions. Encouraging the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations is not recommended as it can reinforce their anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques, encouraging the expression of feelings, and providing a structured daily routine are beneficial strategies in managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting coping skills and emotional expression while fostering stability and predictability.

Similar Questions

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