Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. A healthcare professional is conducting education on anxiety and stress management. Which of the following should be identified as the most important initial step in learning how to manage anxiety?

• A. Diagnostic blood tests
• B. Awareness of factors creating stress
• C. Relaxation exercises
• D. Identifying support systems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Awareness of factors creating stress. In managing anxiety, the first crucial step is recognizing and being aware of the factors that contribute to stress. Without this awareness, it becomes challenging to effectively address and manage anxiety. Diagnostic blood tests are not typically the initial step in managing anxiety; they may be used to rule out other medical conditions but are not the primary focus. While relaxation exercises can be helpful in managing anxiety, understanding the root causes of stress takes precedence. Identifying support systems is important but comes after recognizing the stress factors to develop a comprehensive management plan.

3. A client has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Preoccupation with having a serious illness
• B. Fear of social situations
• C. Dramatic expressions of emotion
• D. Preoccupation with a perceived physical defect

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoccupation with having a serious illness. Illness anxiety disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness, despite medical reassurance. This preoccupation leads individuals to misinterpret normal bodily sensations as signs of a severe illness, causing distress and impairment in daily functioning. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fear of social situations, dramatic expressions of emotion, and preoccupation with a perceived physical defect are not typical behaviors associated with illness anxiety disorder.

4. When under stress, a client routinely uses an excessive amount of alcohol. Finding her drunk, her husband yells at her about the chronic alcohol abuse. Which reaction should the nurse recognize as the use of the defense mechanism of denial?

• A. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet
• B. Yelling at their son for slouching in his chair
• C. Burning dinner on purpose
• D. Saying to the spouse, 'I don't drink too much!'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should recognize the client's statement 'I don't drink too much!' as the use of the defense mechanism of denial. This response indicates the client's refusal to acknowledge the reality of excessive alcohol consumption, which is a key characteristic of denial. By denying the problem, the client avoids facing the negative consequences and feelings associated with their alcohol abuse. Choices A, B, and C do not exhibit denial but rather represent different defense mechanisms. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet might indicate the defense mechanism of concealment, yelling at their son for slouching in his chair could reflect displacement, and burning dinner on purpose might suggest passive-aggressive behavior.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

Similar Questions