ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
2. When a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine, what is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Suicidal ideation
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When initiating fluoxetine therapy in a patient with major depressive disorder, monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial due to the increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors that can occur, especially in the initial phase of treatment. This close monitoring is essential to ensure patient safety and intervene promptly if such symptoms arise. Weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are potential side effects of some medications used to treat depression, but suicidal ideation is the most critical and immediate side effect to monitor for when starting fluoxetine.
3. Which of the following are common symptoms of schizophrenia? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Delusions
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Organized speech
- D. Catatonia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Common symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and catatonia. Organized speech is not a typical symptom of schizophrenia. In schizophrenia, individuals often exhibit disorganized or incoherent speech patterns, rather than organized speech. Euphoria is not typically associated with schizophrenia, making it an incorrect choice.
4. A client experiencing a manic episode is talking rapidly and jumping from one topic to another. Which term describes this symptom?
- A. Circumstantiality
- B. Flight of ideas
- C. Tangentiality
- D. Perseveration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a manic episode, 'Flight of ideas' is characterized by rapid speech, where the individual moves quickly between topics without a clear connection. This symptom reflects the racing thoughts and impulsivity often seen in manic episodes. Circumstantiality refers to unnecessary detail and delay in getting to the point, tangentiality involves going off on a tangent or unrelated topics, and perseveration is the persistent repetition of a response or behavior. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' best describes the symptom of rapidly changing topics during a manic episode.
5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
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