which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

3. A client has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder and expresses worrying about their job, family, and health, feeling a loss of control. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step for the nurse is to teach the client deep breathing techniques to aid in managing anxiety symptoms. Deep breathing exercises can help the client relax, reduce anxiety levels, and regain a sense of control. This intervention is non-invasive, empowering the client to develop a coping strategy for immediate use when feeling overwhelmed by anxiety. Administering medication (Choice A) should not be the first action unless the client is in severe distress. Encouraging attendance at a support group (Choice B) and identifying triggers of anxiety (Choice C) are important but teaching coping strategies like deep breathing comes first to help the client feel more in control of managing their anxiety.

4. When developing a care plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following interventions should not be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is essential to consider therapeutic interventions. Encouraging the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations is not recommended as it can reinforce their anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques, encouraging the expression of feelings, and providing a structured daily routine are beneficial strategies in managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting coping skills and emotional expression while fostering stability and predictability.

5. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. Which behavior is characteristic of this disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instability in relationships. Individuals with borderline personality disorder often exhibit instability in their relationships, characterized by intense and unstable interpersonal connections, oscillating between idealization and devaluation. This pattern can lead to frequent conflicts, dramatic emotional shifts, and difficulties maintaining stable relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also have an excessive need for attention, fear of abandonment, or lack of interest in activities, the hallmark feature defining this disorder is the instability in relationships.

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