ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
2. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?
- A. Tremors
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.
3. Adolescents often display fluctuations in mood along with undeveloped emotional regulation and poor tolerance for frustration. Emotional and behavioral control usually increases over the course of adolescence due to:
- A. Limited executive function
- B. Cerebellum maturation
- C. Cerebral stasis and hormonal changes
- D. A slight reduction in brain volume
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During adolescence, emotional and behavioral control typically improves as the cerebellum matures. The cerebellum plays a significant role in regulating emotions and behavior, contributing to the increased control seen in adolescents over time.
4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.
5. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
- B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
- D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.
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