which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client experiencing severe anxiety?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of severe anxiety, creating a quiet and calm environment is crucial as it can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation. This environment can provide a sense of safety and security, which are essential for individuals experiencing heightened anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to talk about their feelings may not be suitable during severe anxiety as it can further escalate distress by focusing on the source of anxiety. Vigorous exercise and group activities may not be appropriate initially, as they can increase arousal levels rather than promoting a sense of calm needed to manage severe anxiety.

3. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. Which behavior is characteristic of this disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instability in relationships. Individuals with borderline personality disorder often exhibit instability in their relationships, characterized by intense and unstable interpersonal connections, oscillating between idealization and devaluation. This pattern can lead to frequent conflicts, dramatic emotional shifts, and difficulties maintaining stable relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also have an excessive need for attention, fear of abandonment, or lack of interest in activities, the hallmark feature defining this disorder is the instability in relationships.

4. Which statement made by the nurse demonstrates the best understanding of nonverbal communication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication helps validate the patient's response.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is being treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Memory loss, especially short-term memory loss, is a common side effect associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). During ECT treatment, the electrical currents passed through the brain can disrupt short-term memory formation. This side effect is usually temporary, but patients should be closely monitored for any changes in memory function during and after the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not commonly associated with ECT. Hypertension, weight gain, and hyperglycemia are not typically observed as side effects of ECT.

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