Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

3. Which of the following is not a common symptom of major depressive disorder?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Feelings of hopelessness
• C. Increased energy
• D. Difficulty concentrating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common symptoms of major depressive disorder include insomnia, feelings of hopelessness, difficulty concentrating, and appetite changes. Increased energy is not typically associated with major depressive disorder; instead, fatigue is more commonly observed. This symptom differentiation helps in diagnosing major depressive disorder accurately.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Fatigue
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Mania

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, excessive worry, and irritability. Mania is not typically associated with GAD; instead, it is a key feature of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect to find mania in a client with GAD.

5. When developing a care plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which of the following interventions should not be included?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations.
• B. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
• C. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• D. Provide a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is essential to consider therapeutic interventions. Encouraging the client to avoid anxiety-provoking situations is not recommended as it can reinforce their anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques, encouraging the expression of feelings, and providing a structured daily routine are beneficial strategies in managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting coping skills and emotional expression while fostering stability and predictability.

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