which symptom should a nurse identify as typical of the fight or flight response
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

2. Which drug group requires nursing assessment for the development of abnormal movement disorders in individuals taking therapeutic dosages?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antipsychotics are known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which manifest as abnormal movement disorders. Nursing assessments are crucial in monitoring patients taking antipsychotics to promptly identify and manage these potential side effects.

3. When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would a nurse most likely observe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients with GAD experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their lives, often anticipating disaster or catastrophic outcomes. This worry is difficult to control and can be accompanied by physical symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, irritability, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hallucinations are more typical of psychotic disorders, and compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Therefore, when assessing a patient with GAD, a nurse would most likely observe excessive worry.

4. What is the most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms is the limitation of problem-solving skills. When individuals rely excessively on defense mechanisms to cope with stress or anxiety, they may avoid addressing underlying issues or seeking healthier coping strategies. This can lead to maladaptive behaviors, hindering their ability to effectively deal with reality, maintain healthy relationships, or perform well in various aspects of life. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the suppression of problem-solving skills, intense experience of emotions, and enhancement of learning and growth are not the primary consequences of excessive use of defense mechanisms.

5. During a mental health assessment on an adult client, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential reflects self-actualization. This level represents achieving personal growth, self-improvement, and reaching one's full potential, indicating optimal mental health. Choices A, B, and D represent lower levels of needs according to Maslow's hierarchy. Maintaining a long-term relationship indicates belongingness and love needs, achieving self-confidence pertains to esteem needs, and developing a sense of purpose relates to self-esteem and self-actualization needs, but they are not at the pinnacle of self-actualization as in choice C.

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