ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam
1. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Phenelzine
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Olanzapine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.
2. A client is experiencing panic attacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client manage anxiety?
- A. Encourage the client to avoid situations that trigger anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
- C. Encourage the client to take anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During panic attacks, deep breathing exercises can help the client manage anxiety effectively by promoting relaxation and reducing the intensity of symptoms. Encouraging the client to practice deep breathing can provide a quick and accessible strategy to cope with the immediate distress of a panic attack. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding triggering situations may reinforce avoidance behavior, anti-anxiety medication is not the first-line intervention during a panic attack, and engaging in physical activity may not be feasible or effective during an acute episode of panic.
3. A nursing instructor is discussing diseases of adaptation with students and when they are likely to occur. Which student response indicates that learning has occurred?
- A. When an individual has limited experience managing stress
- B. When an individual inherits adaptive genes
- C. When an individual faces pre-existing conditions that worsen stress
- D. When an individual's physiological and psychological resources are depleted
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome, an individual's physiological and psychological resources become depleted, leading to a reduced capacity to adapt effectively. This depletion of resources is when diseases of adaptation, such as stress-related disorders, are more likely to occur. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an accurate understanding of diseases of adaptation. Limited experience managing stress, inheriting adaptive genes, and facing pre-existing conditions that worsen stress do not directly relate to the concept of physiological and psychological resource depletion leading to diseases of adaptation.
4. Which statement demonstrates a well-structured attempt at limit setting?
- A. Hitting me when you are angry is unacceptable.
- B. I expect you to behave yourself during dinner.
- C. Come here, right now!
- D. Good boys don't bite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A, 'Hitting me when you are angry is unacceptable,' demonstrates a well-structured attempt at limit setting because it clearly defines the unacceptable behavior without ambiguity. This statement sets a clear boundary and clearly communicates the consequence for the behavior. In contrast, choices B, C, and D are less effective in setting limits as they are either vague expectations or commands without specific consequences for crossing the limit.
5. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Norepinephrine
- C. Dopamine
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.
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