Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. Which behavior is characteristic of this disorder?

• A. Excessive need for attention
• B. Instability in relationships
• C. Fear of abandonment
• D. Lack of interest in activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instability in relationships. Individuals with borderline personality disorder often exhibit instability in their relationships, characterized by intense and unstable interpersonal connections, oscillating between idealization and devaluation. This pattern can lead to frequent conflicts, dramatic emotional shifts, and difficulties maintaining stable relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also have an excessive need for attention, fear of abandonment, or lack of interest in activities, the hallmark feature defining this disorder is the instability in relationships.

2. A woman was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. When found, she was confused and disoriented. The nurse makes the following observations about the client. She is talking rapidly in disjointed phrases, is unable to concentrate, and is indecisive when asked to make simple decisions. The client's level of anxiety can be assessed as

• A. moderate
• B. severe
• C. mild
• D. nonexistent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's presentation, including rapid and disjointed speech, inability to concentrate, and indecisiveness, are indicative of severe anxiety. These symptoms suggest a high level of distress and impairment in cognitive functioning, which aligns with severe anxiety rather than mild or moderate levels. The traumatic experience of being abducted and raped at gunpoint would likely contribute to such a severe level of anxiety.

3. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

4. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

5. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
• B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
• C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
• D. The client maintains a stable weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.

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