ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which question provides information regarding a child's community mobility?
- A. What is the level of supervision provided?
- B. Can the child leave the house and play with friends?
- C. Is the child being bullied?
- D. Is there equipment available so the child can play with peers?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B directly assesses the child's community mobility by inquiring about their ability to leave the house and engage in play activities with friends. Community mobility involves the child's independence in social and recreational activities outside the home, making this question crucial for understanding their daily functioning and autonomy.
2. Which clean-catch urinalysis finding should raise the most concern for a child admitted to an urgent care center to rule out a urinary tract infection?
- A. 2+ white blood cells
- B. 1+ red blood cells
- C. Urine appearance: cloudy
- D. Specific gravity: 1.009
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A specific gravity of 1.009 is low, indicating diluted urine, which can be concerning in the context of a urinary tract infection. Diluted urine may suggest inadequate concentration due to increased fluid intake or impaired kidney function, which are important considerations in the assessment of a possible UTI.
3. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?
- A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
- B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
- C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
- D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.
4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?
- A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
- B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
- C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
- D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.
5. What important information should the nurse provide to a patient taking a tetracycline antibiotic?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid exposure to sunlight and tanning beds.
- C. Do not take the medication with milk or other dairy products.
- D. The medication may cause permanent staining of your teeth.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tetracycline antibiotics can bind to calcium in dairy products, decreasing the absorption of the antibiotic. This may result in reduced effectiveness of the medication. Additionally, tetracycline antibiotics can cause permanent staining of teeth, especially in children below 8 years of age and in pregnant women. Therefore, it is crucial for the patient to be aware of this potential side effect and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because tetracycline antibiotics should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, exposure to sunlight is not a significant concern with tetracycline antibiotics, and the issue with dairy products is related to calcium binding and reduced absorption rather than an issue of empty stomach intake.
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