Nursing Elites

1. What is the goal of pharmacologic therapy in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease?

• A. To increase the amount of acetylcholine at the pre-synaptic neurons
• B. To reduce the amount of dopamine available in the substantia nigra
• C. To balance cholinergic and dopaminergic activity in the brain
• D. To block dopamine receptors in pre-synaptic and post-synaptic neurons

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Parkinson’s disease results from a decrease in dopaminergic (inhibitory) activity, leaving an imbalance with too much cholinergic (excitatory) activity. With an increase in dopamine, the neurotransmitter activity becomes more balanced, and symptoms are controlled.

2. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch’s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

3. Which clean-catch urinalysis finding should raise the most concern for a child admitted to an urgent care center to rule out a urinary tract infection?

• A. 2+ white blood cells
• B. 1+ red blood cells
• C. Urine appearance: cloudy
• D. Specific gravity: 1.009

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A specific gravity of 1.009 is low, indicating diluted urine, which can be concerning in the context of a urinary tract infection. Diluted urine may suggest inadequate concentration due to increased fluid intake or impaired kidney function, which are important considerations in the assessment of a possible UTI.

4. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should give your child his salmeterol inhaler every 4 hours when he is having an acute episode of wheezing.
• B. You should monitor your child's weight weekly while he is receiving inhaled corticosteroid therapy.
• C. Pulmonary function tests will be performed every 12 to 24 months to evaluate how your child is responding to therapy.
• D. When using the peak expiratory flow meter, record your child's average of three readings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parent that the child will need pulmonary function tests every 12 to 24 months to assess lung function and response to treatment. These tests help evaluate the presence of lung disease, monitor disease progression, and assess the effectiveness of the current therapeutic regimen in managing asthma. Choice A is incorrect as salmeterol is not used for acute wheezing episodes but rather for long-term maintenance. Choice B is incorrect because weight monitoring is not directly related to inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Choice D is incorrect as peak expiratory flow meter readings should be recorded as instructed, not averaged.

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