Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing for the delivery of a newborn with a known diaphragmatic hernia defect. Which equipment should the professional have on hand for the delivery?

• A. Bag-valve-mask system
• B. Sterile gauze and saline
• C. Soft arm restraints
• D. Endotracheal tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An endotracheal tube is crucial for managing the airway of a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia. In this condition, there may be respiratory distress due to incomplete development of the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity and compress the lungs. The endotracheal tube helps in securing the airway and providing respiratory support if needed until definitive treatment can be initiated.

3. During an assessment, which manifestation should a healthcare provider expect in an infant with pyloric stenosis?

• A. Bile-stained vomitus
• B. Distended abdomen
• C. Olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
• D. Painless, swollen joints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. This mass can often be palpated during an assessment and is a key characteristic of this condition. Bile-stained vomitus may be seen in conditions such as intestinal obstruction; a distended abdomen can be a nonspecific sign of various conditions, and painless, swollen joints are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.

4. Which urinary diversion procedure is the least damaging to the body image of the adolescent?

• A. Urostomy
• B. Ileal conduit
• C. Nephrostomy
• D. Suprapubic placement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ileal conduit. The ileal conduit diverts urine to the colon, and the urine is excreted with the feces. Unlike urostomy, nephrostomy, and suprapubic placement, the ileal conduit does not require an external appliance, which can be less damaging to an adolescent's body image.

5. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

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