which parts of the body need continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and death
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. Which part of the body requires a continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and death?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The brain requires a continuous supply of oxygen and vital nutrients to support life and prevent death. Oxygen and nutrients are essential for brain function, and any interruption in the supply can lead to serious consequences, including brain damage or death. Therefore, ensuring a constant flow of oxygen and nutrients to the brain is vital for survival and overall health.

2. A client with a history of preterm labor is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider because these are manifestations of preterm labor. This response demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of monitoring contractions and seeking appropriate medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, increasing activity, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor are not relevant actions in managing preterm labor or taking Terbutaline.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

5. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so monitoring the client's platelet count is crucial to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, a known adverse effect of Clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's impact on platelet function.

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