which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4

1. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

2. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.

3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a serious complication. Therefore, this client should be seen first to prevent any potential harm. Choice B may be important, but it does not pose an immediate risk compared to thromboembolism. Choice C is a routine care task that can be delayed, and Choice D, discontinuing intravenous fluid, is important but not as urgent as preventing thromboembolism.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin). Regular insulin is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis due to its rapid onset of action. Novolin L (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice A), Novolin N (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice C), and Novolin U (Ultra-Long-acting insulin) (choice D) are not suitable for continuous infusion in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.

5. Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia due to blood loss. Choice A is incorrect because hiatal hernia does not directly affect iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turning over more quickly is not a typical reason for anemia in hiatal hernia patients. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods does not directly cause anemia in this context.

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