which of the following is not a terminal learning objective for phase i of the m6 practical nurse course
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.

2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.

3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

4. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.

5. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.

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