Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is NOT a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course?

• A. Identify principles of basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition
• B. Perform basic-level pharmacological calculations
• C. Integrate the knowledge of drug therapy into nursing practice
• D. Identify basic principles of field nursing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant terminal learning objectives for Phase I, focusing on understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, nutrition, performing pharmacological calculations, and identifying basic principles of field nursing, respectively.

2. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?

• A. The Army Nurse Course
• B. Out-processing
• C. The next duty assignment
• D. The practical nurse licensure examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.

4. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of milk."
• B. "I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast."
• C. "I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee."
• D. "I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can impair iron absorption. Choice B is correct as taking the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast is appropriate. Choice C is correct as coffee can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is correct as antacids should be taken 2 hours after ferrous sulfate to avoid interference with its absorption.

5. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm who is constipated
• B. The client on bed rest who ambulated to the bathroom
• C. The client with essential hypertension who has epistaxis and a headache
• D. The client with arterial occlusive disease who has a decreased pedal pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.

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