ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following would be considered an urgent and important issue?
- A. Replacing two staff who were injured while caring for a violent patient
- B. Updating the employee break room with new furniture
- C. Preparing educational packets on self-administration of insulin for patients
- D. Arranging a team-building event for staff members
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because replacing staff injured while caring for a violent patient is both urgent and important. This issue directly relates to staff safety and patient care, requiring immediate attention. Choice B is not urgent or crucial to patient care. Choice C is important but may not be as urgent as the situation in choice A. Choice D is not as critical as replacing injured staff, making it a less urgent and important issue.
2. When administering a subcutaneous injection of insulin to a client, what angle should the nurse use for the injection?
- A. 45-degree angle
- B. 60-degree angle
- C. 90-degree angle
- D. 30-degree angle
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct angle for administering a subcutaneous injection, such as insulin, is 90 degrees. This angle allows for the medication to be delivered into the subcutaneous layer of tissue beneath the skin. A 45-degree angle is typically used for administering subcutaneous injections in infants or those with reduced adipose tissue, while a 60-degree angle is commonly used for intramuscular injections. A 30-degree angle is not a standard angle for subcutaneous injections.
3. A 52-year-old male patient recently required surgery for the removal of a large calcium oxalate stone. To prevent further stone formation, the nurse advises against drinking?
- A. apple juice
- B. tea
- C. orange juice
- D. coffee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tea contains oxalates, which can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones; therefore, patients prone to kidney stones should avoid excessive tea consumption.
4. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
5. What does a QRS Complex represent in an ECG reading?
- A. Atrial depolarization
- B. Ventricular repolarization
- C. Ventricular depolarization
- D. End of ventricular depolarization
Correct answer: C: Ventricular depolarization
Rationale: The QRS Complex in an ECG reading represents ventricular depolarization, which is the process of the heart's ventricles preparing to contract by changing the electrical charge in the cell, hence choice 'C' is the correct answer. Choice 'A' is incorrect because atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave in an ECG reading, not the QRS Complex. Choice 'B' is incorrect as ventricular repolarization is depicted by the T wave, not the QRS Complex. Finally, choice 'D' is also incorrect because the QRS Complex is not the end of ventricular depolarization, but the process itself.
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