Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

• A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
• B. Urinary catheterization
• C. Nasogastric tube insertion
• D. Colostomy irrigation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.

2. Which action would break sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?

• A. Using sterile forceps instead of sterile gloves to handle a sterile item
• B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
• C. Placing a sterile object at the edge of the sterile field
• D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring it into a sterile container

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterility of the item. It is crucial to maintain strict adherence to sterile technique to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during procedures.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

4. A client is receiving brachytherapy for treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Cleanse equipment before removal from the client's room.
• B. Limit the client's visitors to 30 minutes per day.
• C. Discard the client's linens in a double bag.
• D. Discard the radioactive source in a biohazard bag

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving brachytherapy, it is crucial to handle radioactive sources appropriately. Discarding the radioactive source in a biohazard bag is essential to prevent exposure to radiation. Cleaning equipment before removal, limiting client's visitors, or discarding linens in a double bag are not specific to the management of radioactive sources in brachytherapy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

Similar Questions