Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

• A. Gender
• B. Environmental allergies
• C. Alcohol
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.

2. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
• D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.

3. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

4. What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?

• A. Tympanic percussion, measurement of abdominal girth, and inspection
• B. Assessment for distention, tenderness, and discoloration around the umbilicus
• C. Percussion, palpation, and auscultation
• D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation allows the healthcare provider to listen for bowel sounds, followed by percussion to assess for areas of tenderness or abnormal distention, and finally palpation to feel for masses or organ enlargement. This sequence ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of the abdomen.

5. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?

• A. Side rails are ineffective
• B. Side rails should not be used
• C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevents a patient from falling out of bed
• D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct conclusion drawn from the study is that side rails serve as a reminder to the patient not to get out of bed rather than being a fail-proof preventive measure against falls. While they may not entirely prevent falls, they play a role in prompting the patient to be cautious when moving.

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