Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

• A. Gender
• B. Environmental allergies
• C. Alcohol
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.

2. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the purpose of administering vecuronium to a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication is given to treat infection.
• B. This medication is given to facilitate ventilation.
• C. This medication is given to decrease inflammation.
• D. This medication is given to reduce anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is used to facilitate ventilation by inducing muscle paralysis, which can help improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS. It does not treat infection, decrease inflammation, or reduce anxiety. Understanding the purpose of vecuronium administration is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients with respiratory distress.

3. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?

• A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
• B. Self-perception
• C. Love and belonging
• D. Physiological needs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orem's theory, also known as the Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, focuses on individuals' ability to perform self-care to maintain health and well-being. One specific component of this theory is the maintenance of a sufficient intake of air, which is crucial for sustaining life and overall health. Option A is the correct choice as it directly relates to meeting physiological needs, such as the intake of air, to support optimal functioning and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically align with Orem's emphasis on self-care and meeting physiological requirements.

4. A client in labor is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?

• A. Urine output of 20 ml/hr.
• B. Montevideo units constantly at 300 mm Hg.
• C. FHR pattern showing absent variability.
• D. Contractions occurring every 5 minutes and lasting 30 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montevideo units measure the strength and frequency of contractions during labor. A consistent Montevideo units reading of 300 mm Hg or higher is indicative of effective uterine contractions. In this scenario, an increase in the rate of oxytocin infusion may be warranted to further augment contractions and promote progress in labor. The other options, such as low urine output, absent variability in fetal heart rate, and short contractions, do not directly correlate with the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion rate.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

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