ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?
- A. Gender
- B. Environmental allergies
- C. Alcohol
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.
2. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?
- A. Optic
- B. Olfactory
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Trochlear
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.
3. A healthcare professional is providing information about tuberculosis to a group of clients at a local community center. Which of the following manifestations should the professional NOT include in the teaching?
- A. Persistent cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Fatigue
- D. Night sweats
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weight gain is not a typical manifestation of tuberculosis. The characteristic symptoms of tuberculosis include a persistent cough, fatigue, and night sweats. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a common symptom associated with tuberculosis due to the impact of the infection on the body's metabolism. Therefore, the healthcare professional should exclude weight gain from the teaching on tuberculosis manifestations.
4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?
- A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
- B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
- C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
- D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.
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