Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?

• A. Gender
• B. Environmental allergies
• C. Alcohol
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.

2. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?

• A. Coffee with creamer
• B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
• C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

5. When preparing to administer eye drops to a school-age child, what actions should a nurse take?

• A. 52341
• B. 53241
• C. 35241
• D. 14325

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering eye drops to a school-age child is as follows: 5. Place the child in a sitting position, 2. Ask the child to look upward, 3. Pull the lower eyelid downward, 4. Instill the drops of medication, and 1. Apply pressure to the lacrimal punctum. Placing the child in a sitting position helps with stability and ease of access. Asking the child to look upward helps expose the conjunctival sac. Pulling the lower eyelid downward creates a pouch for instilling the drops. Instilling the drops of medication directly into the pouch ensures proper administration, and applying pressure to the lacrimal punctum prevents systemic absorption and promotes local action of the medication.

Similar Questions