ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
- B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
- C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
- D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.
2. A patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain. Which of the following would immediately alert the healthcare provider that the patient has bleeding from the GI tract?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Guaiac test
- C. Vital signs
- D. Abdominal girth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive guaiac test is used to detect the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the stool, suggesting bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. It is a rapid screening test that can provide immediate information to the healthcare provider about possible gastrointestinal bleeding in patients presenting with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
4. What is the best position for examining the rectum?
- A. Prone
- B. Sim's
- C. Knee-chest
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.
5. Which of the following substances increase the amount of urine produced?
- A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola
- B. Beets
- C. Urinary analgesics
- D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine production by promoting the excretion of water from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, substances like caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola, can lead to an increase in the amount of urine produced.
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