Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
• B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
• C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
• D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

2. What is a nurse's role in health promotion?

• A. Conducting health risk appraisals
• B. Educating clients to be effective health consumers
• C. Implementing worksite wellness programs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse plays a crucial role in health promotion by educating clients to be effective health consumers. This involves empowering individuals to make informed decisions about their health, access appropriate healthcare services, and engage in healthy behaviors to prevent illness and promote well-being. The other choices are not entirely accurate in describing the primary role of a nurse in health promotion. While nurses may conduct health risk appraisals and implement worksite wellness programs as part of their responsibilities, their central focus is on educating and empowering individuals to take control of their health.

3. What is the initial technique used when examining a client's abdomen?

• A. Palpation
• B. Auscultation
• C. Percussion
• D. Inspection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining a client's abdomen, the initial technique used is inspection. Inspection involves visually assessing the abdomen for any abnormalities, such as distention, scars, or rashes. This step allows the healthcare provider to gather valuable information before proceeding to other examination techniques like palpation, auscultation, and percussion. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are secondary techniques used after visual inspection to further assess the abdomen for specific findings. Palpation involves feeling the abdomen for masses or tenderness, auscultation is listening for bowel sounds, and percussion is tapping the abdomen to assess for areas of dullness or resonance.

4. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

5. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing

• A. Baseline vital signs
• B. Systolic blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Apical pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing the apical pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is typically at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This technique allows healthcare providers to accurately assess the heart rate and rhythm by listening to the heart sounds directly at this point.

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