ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
- B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
- C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
- D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.
2. What is the meaning of PRN?
- A. When advice
- B. Immediately
- C. When necessary
- D. Now
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'
3. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to an increased risk of thromboembolism. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders should avoid oral contraceptives to prevent further complications like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
4. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Antiviral
- D. Beta2 agonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.
5. A healthcare professional realizes that the wrong medication has been administered to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Report the incident to the healthcare facility's manager.
- C. Monitor vital signs.
- D. Fill out an incident report.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a situation where the wrong medication has been administered to a client, the immediate priority is to assess and monitor the client's vital signs to identify any adverse effects of the incorrect medication. This action takes precedence over notifying the provider, reporting the incident, or filling out an incident report. Monitoring vital signs allows for timely recognition and intervention if the client experiences any negative reactions to the wrong medication, ensuring their safety and well-being.
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