Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
• B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
• C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
• D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

2. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:

• A. 0.6 mg
• B. 10 mg
• C. 60 mg
• D. 600 mg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?

• A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
• B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
• C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
• D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.

4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

5. A client has global aphasia affecting both receptive and expressive language abilities. Which intervention should NOT be included in the client's care plan?

• A. Speak to the client at a slower rate.
• B. Assist the client in using flash cards with pictures.
• C. Speak to the client in a loud voice.
• D. Give instructions one step at a time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with global aphasia have difficulty understanding and expressing language. Speaking loudly may not improve comprehension and can be perceived as aggressive. Therefore, it is important not to speak loudly to a client with global aphasia. Speaking at a slower rate, using visual aids like flash cards, and breaking down instructions into simple steps can facilitate communication and understanding for the client.

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