which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024

1. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

2. A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.

3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

4. A client with tuberculosis is receiving a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling of the hands is a common adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) due to its potential to cause peripheral neuropathy. This sensation can be an early sign of nerve damage, and thus, the client should be instructed to report it promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

5. A client has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaper dermatitis, also known as diaper rash, is a common condition in babies or clients who wear diapers. The primary intervention for diaper dermatitis is to apply a protective barrier cream, such as zinc oxide ointment, to the irritated area. This helps to protect the skin from irritants and promotes healing. Wiping stool from the skin using baby wipes may further irritate the skin, and talcum powder is no longer recommended due to potential respiratory risks when inhaled. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area.

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