ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain. Which of the following would immediately alert the healthcare provider that the patient has bleeding from the GI tract?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Guaiac test
- C. Vital signs
- D. Abdominal girth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive guaiac test is used to detect the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the stool, suggesting bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. It is a rapid screening test that can provide immediate information to the healthcare provider about possible gastrointestinal bleeding in patients presenting with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain.
2. What is the initial technique used when examining a client's abdomen?
- A. Palpation
- B. Auscultation
- C. Percussion
- D. Inspection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When examining a client's abdomen, the initial technique used is inspection. Inspection involves visually assessing the abdomen for any abnormalities, such as distention, scars, or rashes. This step allows the healthcare provider to gather valuable information before proceeding to other examination techniques like palpation, auscultation, and percussion. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are secondary techniques used after visual inspection to further assess the abdomen for specific findings. Palpation involves feeling the abdomen for masses or tenderness, auscultation is listening for bowel sounds, and percussion is tapping the abdomen to assess for areas of dullness or resonance.
3. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
- A. 5 gtt/minute
- B. 13 gtt/minute
- C. 25 gtt/minute
- D. 50 gtt/minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
4. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?
- A. Parkinson’s disease
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
- D. Alzheimer’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
5. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:
- A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
- B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
- C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.
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