a patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of nausea vomiting diarrhea and severe abdominal pain which of the following would immediately a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024

1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain. Which of the following would immediately alert the healthcare provider that the patient has bleeding from the GI tract?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive guaiac test is used to detect the presence of occult (hidden) blood in the stool, suggesting bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. It is a rapid screening test that can provide immediate information to the healthcare provider about possible gastrointestinal bleeding in patients presenting with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

4. A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8°F (37.7°C). This temperature reading probably indicates:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A patient being kept off food and fluids before surgery can lead to dehydration. Dehydration can cause a slight increase in body temperature, which could explain the elevated oral temperature reading of 99.8°F (37.7°C) in this scenario. Infections are more likely to cause higher fevers, hypothermia would present with a lower temperature, and anxiety typically does not directly affect body temperature in this manner.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client following chest tube placement. Which of the following items should NOT be available in the client's room?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following chest tube placement, an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically needed or relevant to the care provided. Chest tube placement is primarily concerned with managing pleural effusion or pneumothorax, and urinary catheterization is not directly related to this procedure. Oxygen, sterile water, and enclosed hemostat clamps are commonly used items in the care of a client with a chest tube in place, to ensure proper oxygenation, maintain drainage system integrity, and manage any bleeding that may occur. Therefore, the indwelling urinary catheter should not be available in the client's room following chest tube placement.

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