Nursing Elites

1. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?

• A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
• B. Waist tie in front of the gown
• C. Cuffs of the gown
• D. Inside of the gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.

2. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?

• A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
• B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
• C. Respiratory excitement
• D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.

3. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Eupnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.

4. What is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?

• A. Intramuscular
• B. Intradermal
• C. Subcutaneous
• D. Intravenous

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate route of administration for insulin is subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are commonly used for insulin administration due to the slower absorption rate compared to intramuscular or intravenous routes. This slower absorption rate allows for better control of blood glucose levels. Intramuscular administration is not ideal for insulin as it can lead to rapid absorption and fluctuations in blood sugar levels. Intradermal injections are shallow and used for skin testing rather than insulin administration. Intravenous administration of insulin is not recommended due to the rapid and unpredictable effects it can have on blood glucose levels.

5. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.

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