ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?
- A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
- B. Waist tie in front of the gown
- C. Cuffs of the gown
- D. Inside of the gown
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.
2. What is the best description of resonance?
- A. Sounds created by air-filled structures
- B. Short, high-pitched, and thudding
- C. Moderately loud with a musical quality
- D. Drum-like
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Resonance refers to the quality of sound produced by vibrations that are reinforced by other vibrations of the same frequency. In the context of the human body, resonance is often associated with sounds produced by air-filled structures like the lungs, vocal cords, and resonating cavities. Therefore, the best description of resonance from the given options is 'Sounds created by air-filled structures.' This choice aligns with the concept of resonance as it relates to sound production in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the concept of resonance or its association with air-filled structures.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
4. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
5. When teaching about electrical fire prevention at a community health fair, which of the following information should be included?
- A. Use three-pronged grounded plugs.
- B. Cover extension cords with a rug.
- C. Check for tingling sensations around the cord to ensure electricity is working.
- D. Remove the plug from the socket by pulling the plug, not the cord.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use three-pronged grounded plugs because they are safer and reduce the risk of electrical fires. Option B is incorrect as covering extension cords with a rug can pose a fire hazard. Option C is incorrect; tingling sensations around a cord indicate an electrical issue, not proper functioning. Option D is unsafe; plugs should be removed from the socket by pulling the plug, not the cord, to prevent damage and reduce the risk of electrical hazards.
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