ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?
- A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
- B. Waist tie in front of the gown
- C. Cuffs of the gown
- D. Inside of the gown
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.
2. Prior to a thoracentesis, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client in an upright position, leaning over the bedside table.
- B. Explain the procedure.
- C. Obtain ABGs.
- D. Administer benzocaine spray.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Positioning the client in an upright position, leaning over the bedside table helps to facilitate access to the thoracic cavity during the thoracentesis procedure. This position allows for easier identification and access to the insertion site. Explaining the procedure to the client is important, but positioning is the priority. Obtaining ABGs is not directly related to the thoracentesis procedure. Administering benzocaine spray is not a standard practice before a thoracentesis.
3. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
- A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
- B. Self-perception
- C. Love and belonging
- D. Physiological needs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orem's theory, also known as the Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, focuses on individuals' ability to perform self-care to maintain health and well-being. One specific component of this theory is the maintenance of a sufficient intake of air, which is crucial for sustaining life and overall health. Option A is the correct choice as it directly relates to meeting physiological needs, such as the intake of air, to support optimal functioning and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically align with Orem's emphasis on self-care and meeting physiological requirements.
4. Which of the following is not a cause of tachycardia?
- A. Fever
- B. Exercise
- C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
- D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tachycardia is an increased heart rate, and it can be caused by various factors such as fever, exercise, and sympathetic nervous system stimulation, all of which tend to increase heart rate. However, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation typically slows the heart rate, making it the exception among the choices provided. Thus, parasympathetic nervous system stimulation is not a cause of tachycardia.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client following chest tube placement. Which of the following items should NOT be available in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Sterile water
- C. Enclosed hemostat clamps
- D. Indwelling urinary catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following chest tube placement, an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically needed or relevant to the care provided. Chest tube placement is primarily concerned with managing pleural effusion or pneumothorax, and urinary catheterization is not directly related to this procedure. Oxygen, sterile water, and enclosed hemostat clamps are commonly used items in the care of a client with a chest tube in place, to ensure proper oxygenation, maintain drainage system integrity, and manage any bleeding that may occur. Therefore, the indwelling urinary catheter should not be available in the client's room following chest tube placement.
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