ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?
- A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
- B. Waist tie in front of the gown
- C. Cuffs of the gown
- D. Inside of the gown
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.
2. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?
- A. Parkinson’s disease
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
- D. Alzheimer’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
3. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
- A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
- B. Urinary catheterization
- C. Nasogastric tube insertion
- D. Colostomy irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.
4. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the healthcare provider identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?
- A. Frothy, pink sputum
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Weight gain
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary congestion is a common manifestation of left-sided heart failure. When the left side of the heart fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. This can result in symptoms such as frothy, pink-tinged sputum due to the presence of blood in the respiratory secretions. Jugular vein distention, weight gain, and bradypnea are also associated with heart failure, but frothy, pink sputum specifically indicates pulmonary congestion in this scenario.
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