Nursing Elites

1. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?

• A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
• B. Waist tie in front of the gown
• C. Cuffs of the gown
• D. Inside of the gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.

3. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?

• A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
• B. Using a water or air mattress
• C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
• D. Providing meticulous skin care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.

4. A client is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should be recognized as a contraindication to the therapy?

• A. Hip arthroplasty 2 weeks ago
• B. Elevated sedimentation rate
• C. Incident of exercise-induced asthma 1 week ago
• D. Elevated platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. Hip arthroplasty (joint replacement surgery) performed recently is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Elevated sedimentation rate, exercise-induced asthma, and elevated platelet count are not contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Instill 500 ml of solution through the NG tube.
• B. Insert a large-bore NG tube.
• C. Use a cold irrigation solution.
• D. Instruct the client to lie on their right side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a gastric lavage procedure for upper gastrointestinal bleeding, inserting a large-bore NG tube is essential to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. This tube allows for efficient irrigation and suction, aiding in the removal of harmful substances from the stomach. Instilling a large volume of solution or using a cold irrigation solution can lead to complications such as fluid overload or hypothermia. Instructing the client to lie on their right side is not directly related to the gastric lavage procedure.

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