Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Cold and heat application
• C. Therapeutic ultrasound
• D. Biofeedback

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cold and heat application. Cold and heat application are commonly used nonpharmacologic methods for managing pain and can complement pharmacologic treatments. Cold packs can help reduce inflammation and numb localized areas, while heat application can increase blood flow and relax muscles. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (A) focuses on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors to manage pain but may not directly supplement pharmacologic analgesia. Therapeutic ultrasound (C) uses sound waves to generate heat within body tissues, which can be therapeutic, but it may not be as directly complementary to pharmacologic analgesia as cold and heat application. Biofeedback (D) involves using electronic devices to help individuals control physiological processes, but its direct role as a supplement to pharmacologic analgesia may be less pronounced compared to cold and heat application.

2. A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which characteristic of the client's history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?

• A. The client is a smoker.
• B. The client has a history of IV drug use.
• C. The client was treated for an STD 2 years ago.
• D. The client has a family history of cardiac disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of IV drug use is significant in cases of fever of unknown origin, as it increases the risk of infections like endocarditis, which can present with persistent fever. Smoking (Choice A) is not directly linked to FUO. While a history of STD treatment (Choice C) may be relevant, it is less likely to be associated with FUO compared to IV drug use. Family history of cardiac disease (Choice D) is not typically a primary factor in the diagnosis of FUO.

3. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

4. A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?

• A. “The medication may cause diabetes.”
• B. “The medication will cause liver necrosis.”
• C. “The medication may cause kidney damage.”
• D. “The medication will cause pancreatitis.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.

5. A patient suffers from an autoimmune disorder. Which of the following represents a potential result of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder?

• A. Lymphocytes recognize the host's tissue as foreign.
• B. Erythrocytes destroy the T cells of the host.
• C. The involution of the thymus gland increases the risk of infection.
• D. The differential decreases the sedimentation rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with an autoimmune disorder, a viral infection can trigger an immune response where lymphocytes mistakenly recognize the host's tissue as foreign. This can lead to an exacerbation of the autoimmune condition. Choice B is incorrect because erythrocytes are not responsible for destroying T cells. Choice C is incorrect as thymus involution weakens the immune response, making the patient more susceptible to infections rather than increasing the infection risk. Choice D is unrelated to the potential effects of a viral infection in a patient with an autoimmune disorder.

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