which of the following managements is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Questions

1. Which of the following management strategies is not included for a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chemotherapy can lead to hair loss, and while using wigs is common, it is not a primary management strategy. The focus should be on limiting exposure to pregnant visitors to prevent harm to the fetus, protecting the client from infections due to a compromised immune system, and administering IV fluids as ordered to maintain hydration levels. Allowing the client to use makeup and wigs is not a primary concern when managing a patient taking chemotherapeutic drugs.

2. The cells of a normal individual can replicate in a specified rate. If the rate of replication becomes uncontrollable, which of the following is lacking from the patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Contact inhibition is a regulatory mechanism that prevents cells from proliferating once they reach a certain density. Normally, when cells grow and touch each other (such as in a monolayer), they stop dividing, maintaining tissue integrity and structure. When contact inhibition is lacking, as in many cancerous cells, cells continue to grow and divide uncontrollably, leading to tumor formation. This loss of regulation is a hallmark of cancerous growth.

3. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's anxiety and encourages reflection on his behavior. This approach can help the patient explore his feelings and thoughts about smoking in relation to his surgery, promoting self-awareness and potentially opening the door for a constructive discussion. Choices A and B are more directive and may not address the underlying anxiety and need for reflection. Choice D is also somewhat permissive about smoking before surgery, which may not be in the patient's best interest.

4. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hodgkin’s disease (Hodgkin’s lymphoma) is a type of cancer that originates in the lymphatic system, particularly affecting the lymph nodes. A hallmark sign of Hodgkin’s disease is the painless enlargement of lymph nodes, often in the neck, armpit, or groin. These enlarged lymph nodes are typically firm and rubbery to the touch. This is one of the most distinctive and common early signs that healthcare providers look for when diagnosing the disease.

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