Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been given a 6-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive-stage small-cell lung cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the patient's care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative?

• A. Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital.
• B. Panel the patient for a personal care home.
• C. Discuss a referral for acute care.
• D. Discuss a referral for hospice care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate alternative to address the patient's desire to die at home while ensuring proper care is hospice care. Hospice care is specifically designed to provide support to patients and families in situations where the patient's needs cannot be met at home. Rehabilitation hospital (Choice A), personal care home (Choice B), and acute care (Choice C) are not the most suitable options in this case as they do not focus on end-of-life care and support like hospice care does.

2. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

• A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
• B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
• C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
• D. Invading healthy host tissues

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

3. A client is admitted with superior vena cava syndrome. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a dose of allopurinol.
• B. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
• C. Gently inquire about advance directives.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to gently inquire about advance directives. Superior vena cava syndrome is often a late-stage manifestation, indicating a serious condition. Discussing advance directives with the client is crucial to ensure their wishes are known in case of deterioration. Administering allopurinol (Choice A) is not indicated for superior vena cava syndrome. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level (Choice B) is not the priority when managing this syndrome. Emergency surgery (Choice D) is not typically the initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate the production of red blood cells in patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), a disorder characterized by ineffective blood cell production, including red blood cells. The primary goal of erythropoietin therapy is to increase red blood cell count, improving the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and reducing symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue and weakness. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is the best way to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy because it directly reflects the patient's red blood cell count and the success of erythropoiesis (red blood cell production).

5. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?

• A. Age younger than 50 years
• B. History of colorectal polyps
• C. Family history of colorectal cancer
• D. Chronic inflammatory bowel disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.

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