Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

2. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Cardiac glycosides
• C. Beta blockers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

3. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, what finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Body temperature 35°C (95°F)
• B. Lung crackles
• C. Cool, dry skin
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression can occur due to increasing respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity leads to metabolic acidosis, stimulating the respiratory center in the brain to increase the respiratory rate initially. However, as the toxicity worsens, respiratory muscle fatigue and depression can occur, resulting in respiratory depression. This can lead to hypoxia, respiratory failure, and ultimately, respiratory arrest.

4. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking Alendronate. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and even ulceration if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to pass through the esophagus and into the stomach, reducing the risk of irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime, and the client should remain upright after taking it. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because while calcium intake is important, it is not directly related to the administration of Alendronate.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. INR of 4.0
• B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.

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