Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drops?

• A. Gtt.
• B. Gtts.
• C. Dp.
• D. Dr.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct abbreviation for drops in medical terminology is 'Gtt.' It is derived from the Latin word 'guttae,' meaning drops. The abbreviation 'Gtts.' (Choice B) is incorrect as it adds an unnecessary 's.' Choices C and D, 'Dp.' and 'Dr.,' are not standard abbreviations for drops in medical contexts, making them incorrect.

2. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

3. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

4. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.

5. A nurse is talking with another nurse on the unit and smells alcohol on her breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Confront the nurse about the suspected alcohol use.
• B. Inform another nurse on the unit about the suspected alcohol use.
• C. Ask the nurse to finish administering medications and then go home.
• D. Notify the nursing manager about the suspected alcohol use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confronting the nurse about the suspected alcohol use is the most appropriate action in this situation. It is essential to address the issue directly and express concerns about patient safety and potential impairment. By addressing the situation promptly, the nurse can potentially prevent harm and provide support to the colleague in need.

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